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Grade: 11
        
Respected Sir/Ma’am,
I have a doubt in quantum numbers. It says, Orbital angular momentum= rootover(l*(l-1))*h/2(pi). Why is the 2(pi) omitted sometimes. What is the logic behind h=h/2(pi)?
Thanking in advance,
Regards, 
Shounak.
5 years ago

Answers : (1)

Sumit Majumdar
IIT Delhi
askIITians Faculty
137 Points
							Dear student,
There are two notations namelyhwhich represents the planck constant and\frac{h}{2\pi}=\overline{h}. So either notations are used.
5 years ago
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