According to gauss’s law for magnetism a magnetic monopole cannot exist as tghe no of field lines going out of the surface should be equal to the number of field line going into it.But according to P.M Dirac there is a possibilty for the existence of a magnertic monopole in accordance to the laws of string theory,How can this be validated in reference to Gauss law,then what is the contradiction to Gauss law?
According to gauss’s law for magnetism a magnetic monopole cannot exist as tghe no of field lines going out of the surface should be equal to the number of field line going into it.But according to P.M Dirac there is a possibilty for the existence of a magnertic monopole in accordance to the laws of string theory,How can this be validated in reference to Gauss law,then what is the contradiction to Gauss law?
SAYAN KUMAR CHAKI , 9 Years ago
Grade 11
