DilipReddy Ask IITians expert-IITB
Last Activity: 14 Years ago
Ans: a
In first case when u resolve the forces and find the frictional force value(f) = µN.
N=mg*cos(60)=mg/2.
f=mg/2 (µ=1)
but the component of force acting parallel to surface is mg*sin(60)=
mg/2
But if u observe the parallel force component is less than frictional force value.
Here the point to be observed is that frictional force will always develop as opposite to the acting force .And µN is the maximum frictional force that can develop but it doesnt mean that always that much frictional force will develop.So the least among above two forces has to be considered.
Hence the answer is mg/2.
For the other case its just straight forward µN=1(mg sin(30))=mg/2.