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I can't find where I went wrong!! Can anybody please find it for me?
We already have:
tan(Π-x)=-tan(x); --(1)
and
tan(-x)=-tan(x); --(2)
So we start:
Let x = tan-1(-y),
Then -y = tan(x);
=> y = -tan(x);
=> y = tan(Π-X) and y = tan(-x) using (1) and (2)
=> Π-x=tan-1(y) and -x= tan-1(y)
=> -x = tan-1(y)-Π and -x = tan-1(y)
=> x = Π - tan-1(y) and x = -tan-1(y)
=> Π - tan-1(y) = - tan-1(y)
=> Π = 0
How can it be possible? Where I went wrong??
Please help me!
Dear student,
Please go thru Inverse trignometric functions, There are some coditions when inverse of a function is applied.....
Can you please note it here? I couldn't find where I am wrong!
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