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Please solve this question. Ans : Option 1.............

Myra , 5 Years ago
Grade 10
anser 1 Answers
Aditya Gupta

Last Activity: 5 Years ago

hello myra, this problem s superbly easy once you draw the graph. you ll note that both curves intersect at 3 points viz. x= 0, pi/2, pi. also, the area bounded b/w the curves from x=0 to pi/2 is equal to area bounded b/w the curves from x=pi/2 to pi (by simple symmetry or you can prove by integration).
so total area would bounded would be twice the are bounded b/w 0 to pi/2, which is equal to
∫ from 0 to pi/2 (cosx)dx – area of triangle formed by axes and line y= 1 – 2x/pi
= 1 – ½ *1*(pi/2)
= 1 – pi/4.
so, double this area= 2 – pi/2
kindly approve :)

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