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`        Letf(x)=x^x,x belongs to (0,∞) and letg(x) be inverse of f(x) ,then g’(x) must be `
3 months ago

## Answers : (1)

```							we know that f(g(x))= xdiff both sides using chain rulef’(g(x))*g’(x)=1or g’(x)= 1/f’(g(x))now f’(x)= x^x(1+lnx)= f(x)*(1+lnx)so f’(g(x))= f(g(x))*(1+lng(x)), but f(g(x))= xso f’(g(x))= x(1+lng(x))so that g’(x)= 1/f’(g(x))= 1/x(1+lng(x))option c is correct.kindly approve please :)
```
3 months ago
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