Click to Chat
1800-1023-196
+91-120-4616500
CART 0
Use Coupon: CART20 and get 20% off on all online Study Material
Welcome User
OR
LOGIN
Complete Your Registration (Step 2 of 2 )
Letf(x)=x^x,x belongs to (0,∞) and letg(x) be inverse of f(x) ,then g’(x) must be
we know that f(g(x))= xdiff both sides using chain rulef’(g(x))*g’(x)=1or g’(x)= 1/f’(g(x))now f’(x)= x^x(1+lnx)= f(x)*(1+lnx)so f’(g(x))= f(g(x))*(1+lng(x)), but f(g(x))= xso f’(g(x))= x(1+lng(x))so that g’(x)= 1/f’(g(x))= 1/x(1+lng(x))option c is correct.kindly approve please :)
Post Question
Dear , Preparing for entrance exams? Register yourself for the free demo class from askiitians.
points won -