Guest

In a binomial distribution n=64 and p=1/16. Can it be approximated to a Poisson Distribution? Why?

In a binomial distribution n=64 and p=1/16. Can it be approximated to a Poisson Distribution? Why?

Grade:12

1 Answers

SOHAN SARANGI
18 Points
10 years ago

Can anyone answer this question.. PLs

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?

Provide a better Answer & Earn Cool Goodies See our forum point policy

ASK QUESTION

Get your questions answered by the expert for free