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`        IF   tan(k+a)/p=tan(k+b)/q=tan(k+c)/r     ,then    prove that: ((p+q)/(p-q))*sin2(a-b) +((q-r)/(q+r))*sin2(b-c)+((r+p)(r-p))*sin2(c-a)=0`
7 years ago

110 Points
```										the point here is to note that there is a certain rhythm in expressionsnowa/b=c/dthen, (a+b)/(a-b)=(c+d)/(c-d)use this three times and write the expressiosn in the for form of tans and p,q etcnow put tan=sin/cos and transformthe procedure is length but will get you an expression which will be like sin2(a-b), since u know what the expanded form of sin(a-b) is.Difficult to understand - post it here and we will get you the answer and detailed solution very quickly. We are all IITians and here to help you in your IIT JEE preparation.DO APPROVE IF THE ANSWER HELPS YOU.Now you can win exciting gifts by answering the questions on Discussion Forum. So help discuss any query on askiitians forum and become an Elite Expert League askiitian.Regards,Askiitians ExpertsRahul- IIT Roorkee
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7 years ago
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