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Tan [pi/4+x] /Tan[pi/4-x]=[1+Tan x/1 Tan x]2
ya because TAN(pi/4+x)=1+tanx/1-tanxand TAN(pi/4-x)=1-tanx/1+tanxfrom this you get your answer
When we expand it we get...Tan π/4 + Tan x / 1- Tan π/4 × Tanx / Tan π/4 - Tanx / 1+ Tanπ/4 × Tan x Which implies 1 + Tanx / 1- Tanx / 1- Tanx / 1+ Tanx Which equals (1+Tanx)2/ (1-Tanx)2Equals (1+Tanx / 1- Tanx)2
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