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How do you solve the second question?….........................

Harnoor , 6 Years ago
Grade 11
anser 1 Answers
Aditya Gupta

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

the above inequality is equivalent to proving the following inequality:
sina(1 – cos(c+b))+sinb(1 – cosacosc)+sinc(1 – cosacosb) > 0 [merely exapnsion of given terms]
 
obviously sina(1 – cos(c+b)) is greater than zero
sinb(1 – cosacosc) is greater than zero
sinc(1 – cosacosb) is greater than zero, as long as a b c are in 0 to pi/2.
hence adding all these inequalities we get the required inequality.

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