as we know that in case of quantum numbers

magnetic quantum number varies as -L to +L....

if l=1, can we determine to which orbital does m=0,m=1 and m=(-1) represent??

a)m=o → p_{x ,} m=1 → p_{y ,} m=(-1) → p_z

_b) m=0 → p_{z ,} m=1 → p_y, m=(-1) → p_x

Unlike the spherically symmetric s orbitals, a p orbital is oriented along a specific axis. All p orbitals have l = 1, and there are three possible values for m (-1, 0, +1). Whenever m does not equal zero, the wave function is complex (both imaginary and real), which makes visualization of the wave function difficult. Chemists generally combine the complex wave functions to create new wave functions that are real. (The Schrödinger equation for the hydrogen atom is a linear differential equation. One consequence is that any linear combination of wave functions is also a valid wave function.) For l = 1, the m = 0 wave function is designated pz. The m = -1 and +1 wave functions are combined to produce two new wave functions, which are designated px and py.