Mahesh Menon
Last Activity: 7 Years ago
Ok got it. Its a nice sum. Made a silly mistake earlier.
So take the integral as f(x). Since we have to find the maximum value f’(x)=0. So differentiate f(x) and euqate to zero (using Lebinitz Theorem). Find x.
You will get the value of lnx as ln(ln2/2n-1). Use L’Hospital’s rule to find the limit since it is in infinity/infinity form.’
You will get the limit as -ln2.
Hence e-(-ln2) is 2.