abhishek singh11 Years agoanswer will be pi/4 ..see we have to use the property of definite integral f(a-x) = f(x). also change tanx to sinx / cosx now we have pi/2∫0 dx/1 + tan x = pi/2∫0 dx/ (1 + (sinx/cosx) ) = pi/2∫0 (cosx)dx /(sinx + cosx) now apply f(a-x) = f(x). therfore we get ½ pi/2∫0 (cosx + sinx )dx /(sinx + cosx) = 1/2* [1]pi/2 = pi/4 0
abhishek singh11 Years agosorrythelast line was wrongly typed .. it was lower limit = 0 and upper limit = pi/2 of [1]* 1/2