Let f(x) be a function satisfying f’(x) = f(x) with f(0) = 1 and g be the function satisfying f(x) + g(x) = x2. The value of the integral 0∫1 f(x)g(x)dx isoptions e – ½ e2 – 5/2 e – e2 – 3 ½ (e-3) e – ½ e2- 3/2
Aditya Kartikeya , 10 Years ago
Grade 10
1 Answers
Jitender Singh
Last Activity: 10 Years ago
Ans: Hello Student, Please find answer to your question below
Option (4)
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