Let f(x) be a function satisfying f’(x) = f(x) with f(0) = 1 and g be the function satisfying f(x) + g(x) = x2. The value of the integral 0∫1 f(x)g(x)dx isoptions\te – ½ e2 – 5/2\te – e2 – 3\t½ (e-3)\te – ½ e2- 3/2
Aditya Kartikeya , 10 Years ago
Grade 10
1 Answers
Jitender Singh
Last Activity: 10 Years ago
Ans: Hello Student, Please find answer to your question below
Option (4)
Provide a better Answer & Earn Cool Goodies
Enter text here...
LIVE ONLINE CLASSES
Prepraring for the competition made easy just by live online class.
Full Live Access
Study Material
Live Doubts Solving
Daily Class Assignments
Ask a Doubt
Get your questions answered by the expert for free