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please solve integral 0 to pi (log tanx ) dx

Rhinithaa PT , 12 Years ago
Grade 11
anser 2 Answers
xyz xz

Last Activity: 12 Years ago

0

k sesi preetam

Last Activity: 11 Years ago

Using the property Integral of f(x) dx limits from a to b is equal to Integral of f(a+b-x) dx with the same limits . Using the same property we get the answer to be log1 which is 0.

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