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If x=cosA+ i sinA, y= cosB+ i sinB, z= cosG + i sinG and x+y+z=xyz, then prove that cos(B-G)+cos(G-A)+cos(A-B)=1

Soumitro , 6 Years ago
Grade 12th pass
anser 2 Answers
Saurabh Koranglekar

Last Activity: 4 Years ago

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Vikas TU

Last Activity: 4 Years ago

Dear student 
by De Moivre's Theorem,
(cosa+cosb+cosc)+i(sina+sinb+sinc)=cos(a+b+c)+isin(a+b+c)
Equating real and imaginary parts,
cosa+cosb+cosc=cos(a+b+c)
and similarly for sine. Now,
(a−b)+(b−c)+(c−a)=0

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