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Plz explain above problem from limits with explanation...........
6 months ago

Answers : (2)

Arun
21511 Points
							
Dear Anvita
 
Please attach the image of the question as it is not visible whether there is a power in the end or not.
6 months ago
Aditya Gupta
1236 Points
							
it is pretty obvious that as limit a^(1/x) as x tends to infinity is a^0=1
now since all the individual limits in the numerator would be 1, their sum would be:
1+1+1+.....+1 (n times)
=n
dividing by the denominator which also happens to be n, we get the value of the lim as
n/n= 1
6 months ago
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