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1 – e ^(1/x – 1 ) > 0 solve this inequality.........................

sadaf sagheer , 6 Years ago
Grade 12th pass
anser 4 Answers
Saurabh Koranglekar

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

To solve the inequality 1e(1/x1)>0, we need to isolate the exponential term and analyze the conditions under which this inequality holds true. Let's break it down step by step.

Step 1: Rearranging the Inequality

First, we can rearrange the inequality:

1 - e^{(1/x - 1)} > 0

implies

e^{(1/x - 1)} < 1.

Step 2: Understanding the Exponential Function

The exponential function ey is always positive for any real y, and it equals 1 when y=0. Therefore, we need to find when:

(1/x - 1) < 0.

Step 3: Solving the Exponential Condition

Let’s solve the inequality:

1/x - 1 < 0.

Rearranging gives:

1/x < 1.

Multiplying both sides by x (keeping in mind that this affects the inequality depending on the sign of x) yields:

  • If x>0, then 1<x or x>1.
  • If x<0, then 1>x (since multiplying by a negative flips the inequality). However, in this case, 1/x will be negative, which cannot satisfy the condition 1/x<1.

Step 4: Analyzing the Results

From our analysis, we conclude that:

1. For x>0, the solution is x>1.2. For x<0, there are no valid solutions as the exponential condition cannot be satisfied.

Final Solution

Thus, the solution to the inequality 1e(1/x1)>0 is:

x > 1.

This means that for any value of x greater than 1, the original inequality holds true. If you have any further questions about specific values or examples, feel free to ask!

Aditya Gupta

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

note that the above answer by saurabh is wrong.
we see that e ^(1/x – 1 ) 1
1/x – 1
or (x – 1)/x > 0
or x belongs to (–infinity, 0)U(1, infinity)

Aditya Gupta

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

we see that e ^(1/x – 1 ) is less than 1
taking log base e both sides 
or x belongs to (–infinity, 0)U(1, infinity)(x – 1)/x is greater than 0is less than 0(1/x) – 1 

Aditya Gupta

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

due to technical error the it has become impossible to write the solution. but all you gotta do is to take log base e both sides and then solve using wavy curve method to get the final CORRECT answer as:
x belongs to :
(–infinity, 0)U(1, infinity)

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