I was asked to prove that:

L± = Lx ± i Ly

but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts?

waiting for your help

please, and thanks

Question

I was asked to prove that: L&#177; = Lx &#177; i Ly but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts? waiting for your help please, and thanks

Chetan Mandayam Nayakar · Answer

You are absolutely right . They are indeed defined in this way. For more information go to http://personal.ph.surrey.ac.uk/~ja0017/chapter4.pdf

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I was asked to prove that: L± = Lx ± i Ly but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts? waiting for your help please, and thanks

I was asked to prove that:

L± = Lx ± i Ly

but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts?

waiting for your help

please, and thanks

1 Answers

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I was asked to prove that: L± = Lx ± i Ly but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts? waiting for your help please, and thanks

I was asked to prove that: L± = Lx ± i Ly but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts? waiting for your help please, and thanks

1 Answers

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?

Other Related Questions on Modern Physics

ASK QUESTION

Answer and earn gift vouchers

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I was asked to prove that:

L± = Lx ± i Ly

but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts?

waiting for your help

please, and thanks