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I was asked to prove that: L± = Lx ± i Ly but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts? waiting for your help please, and thanks

I was asked to prove that:

L± = Lx ± i Ly

but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts?

waiting for your help

please, and thanks

Grade:Upto college level

1 Answers

Chetan Mandayam Nayakar
312 Points
10 years ago

You are absolutely right . They are indeed defined in this way. For more information go to http://personal.ph.surrey.ac.uk/~ja0017/chapter4.pdf

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