I was asked to prove that:
L± = Lx ± i Ly
but aren't they "defined" this way?.. as "identities"? any thoughts?
waiting for your help
please, and thanks
Smile san
15 Years agoGrade Upto college level
1 Answer
Chetan Mandayam Nayakar
15 Years ago
You are absolutely right . They are indeed defined in this way. For more information go to http://personal.ph.surrey.ac.uk/~ja0017/chapter4.pdf