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There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help

There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help

 

Grade:12

1 Answers

Sumit Majumdar IIT Delhi
askIITians Faculty 137 Points
7 years ago
Dear student,
The ranges of a projectile is given by the formula:
R=\frac{u^{2}sin2\theta}{g}
Now when we are talking about a projectile, we mean that it has been given a projection and it doesnt mean that we are throwing it either making it move vertically or horizontally. Thus, the angle of projection would be more than 0 and less and 90.
Regards
Sumit

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