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        Plz solve doubt  As soon as possible  Please Thank you Regards
4 months ago

Kapil Khare
80 Points
							It is given in the question that amplitude is same for the body of mass m/2.And we know that,Angular frequency,  $\omega$ = (k/m)1/2 for the body of mass mWhen we replace the body with another body of mass m/2,Angular frequency,  $\omega$1 = (2k/m)1/2Then energy,        E1 = (1/2)(m/2)($\omega$1)2A2$\implies$                     E1 = (1/2)(m/2)(2k/m)A$\implies$                     E1 = [(1/2)(m)(k/m)A2]$\implies$                     E1 = [(1/2)(m)($\omega$)2A2]$\implies$                     E1 = E

4 months ago
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### Course Features

• 110 Video Lectures
• Revision Notes
• Test paper with Video Solution
• Mind Map
• Study Planner
• NCERT Solutions
• Discussion Forum
• Previous Year Exam Questions