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        Plz solve doubt  As soon as possible  Please Thank you Regards
13 days ago

Kapil Khare
59 Points
							It is given in the question that amplitude is same for the body of mass m/2.And we know that,Angular frequency,  $\omega$ = (k/m)1/2 for the body of mass mWhen we replace the body with another body of mass m/2,Angular frequency,  $\omega$1 = (2k/m)1/2Then energy,        E1 = (1/2)(m/2)($\omega$1)2A2$\implies$                     E1 = (1/2)(m/2)(2k/m)A$\implies$                     E1 = [(1/2)(m)(k/m)A2]$\implies$                     E1 = [(1/2)(m)($\omega$)2A2]$\implies$                     E1 = E

13 days ago
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## COUPON CODE: SELF10

### Course Features

• 101 Video Lectures
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### Course Features

• 110 Video Lectures
• Revision Notes
• Test paper with Video Solution
• Mind Map
• Study Planner
• NCERT Solutions
• Discussion Forum
• Previous Year Exam Questions