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Grade: 11
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10 months ago

Answers : (1)

Kruthik
119 Points
							
Let Vs be the volume of sphere, Vc be the volume of cavity, and Vbe the total volume, ie. Vt=V+ Vs.
After drawing the FBD, We get F- mg = ma (F- force of buoyancy)
Thus, d1Vtg – d2Vsg = d2Vsa
Put Vt = Vs+Vc
d1(V+ Vc)g – d2Vsg = d2Vsa.
d1(V+ Vc)g = d2Vs(a+g)
d1Vsg+ d1Vcg =d2Vs(a+g)
d1Vcg = d2Vs(a+g) – d1Vsg
d1Vcg = d2Vs[(a+g) – d1/d2g]
d2Vs = m
Therefore, d1Vcg = m[(a+g) – d1/d2g]
Hence, V= {m[(a+g) – d1/d2g]} / d1g
On further simplifying, you’ll get the answer, according to the options given...
m[(a+g)d1/d2]d1gm[(a+g)d1/d2]d1
10 months ago
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