Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

Question

Aditi Chauhan · Answer

Therefore if the acceleration of the body is zero ( $\overrightarrow{a}$ = 0), the resultant force acting on the body will be zero and it signifies the body moves with constant velocity which is the statement of Newton’s First law.
But the first law has an independent and important role in defining inertial reference frames. Without using Newton’s first Law, we would not be able to choose the frames of reference in which to apply the second law.

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Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

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Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

1 Answers

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