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Grade 11Mechanics

Can Newton’s first law be considered merely a special case of the second law with src=data:image/png;base64,iVBORw0KGgoAAAANSUhEUgAAABQAAAAbCAIAAADzvTiPAAAAiElEQVQ4je3SwRHAIAgEwKuLgqiHamiGYszDmHEEJySOr4S365EzKAuDH+/BJkRi75OVAdYBK+PB9Hw1OTWr3+xnF+6LZFWG23uCK2z1mBDgbYyVh7PKGJue4JrTHzWhKDjA3hbl0AbY7RzclsWVhvZmbRMikdaW+8uits+wa4H24Nl3zs0X8QGdkqS+cE/ANAAAAABJRU5ErkJggg== =0? If so, is the first law really needed? Discuss.

Profile image of Simran Bhatia
11 Years agoGrade 11
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1 Answer

Profile image of Aditi Chauhan
11 Years ago
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Therefore if the acceleration of the body is zero (\overrightarrow{a} = 0), the resultant force acting on the body will be zero and it signifies the body moves with constant velocity which is the statement of Newton’s First law.
But the first law has an independent and important role in defining inertial reference frames. Without using Newton’s first Law, we would not be able to choose the frames of reference in which to apply the second law.