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A particle with mass m = 0 (a neutrino, possibly) carries momentum. How can this be in view of Eq. 6-1, in which we see that the momentum is directly proportional to the mass?
A particle with mass m = 0 (a neutrino, possibly) carries momentum. How can this be in view of Eq. 6-1, in which we see that the momentum is directly proportional to the mass?

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5 years ago

```							The momentum of a particle (p) is equal to the mass of the particle (m) times the velocity of particle (v). So, p = mv  …… (1)But according to de Broglie hypothesis, the momentum of a particle (p) is equal to the Planck’s constant (h) divided by wavelength of the particle (λ).So, p = h/ λ …… (2)Multiplying a constant c (velocity of light) in numerator and denominator of equation (1), we get,p = h/ λ = hc/ λc= hf/c (Since, c/λ = f (frequency))= E/c (Since, E (energy) = hf) …… (3)From equation (3), quantum mechanically the momentum of a neutrino having zero mass (m = 0) does not depend upon the mass of the particle, it depends on the energy of the particle.Thus a particle having zero mass still has a momentum.
```
5 years ago
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