In Archimedes principle....the formula we use....there we say that wen we dip a body...the fluid exherts a force of buoyancy equal to displaced liquid....now suppose we take a metallic sphere in the first case and then a plastic sphere....then....would both the answers be the same for the two spheres or different?(Since volume of both is the same)Please explain...
In Archimedes principle....the formula we use....there we say that wen we dip a body...the fluid exherts a force of buoyancy equal to displaced liquid....now suppose we take a metallic sphere in the first case and then a plastic sphere....then....would both the answers be the same for the two spheres or different?(Since volume of both is the same)Please explain...