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hii ashok....
please check the inertia explanation...
I(for the whole system) = I (rod 1) + I (rod 2) + I (rod 3)For the rod where the rotation axis passes through the end of the rod, i'm thinking that its moment of inertia should be 1/3 ML^2.For the rod which is parallel to the axis of rotation, monent of inertia is zero...
I(for a long thin rod with a rotation axis through it's end) = 1/3 ML^2.
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