sushant singh
Last Activity: 13 Years ago
hii ashok....
please check the inertia explanation...
I(for the whole system) = I (rod 1) + I (rod 2) + I (rod 3)
For the rod where the rotation axis passes through the end of the rod, i'm thinking that its moment of inertia should be 1/3 ML^2.
For the rod which is parallel to the axis of rotation, monent of inertia is zero...
I(for a long thin rod with a rotation axis through it's end) = 1/3 ML^2.