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why magnetic field due to infinitelylong wire and finite long wire comes out to be same using amperes law?

sadiya , 6 Years ago
Grade 12
anser 1 Answers
Eshan

Last Activity: 6 Years ago

Dear student,

If this is so, you are making a mistake while applying the Ampere’s law. Ampere’s law only states that line integral of magnetic field is equal to\mu_0 I, which is always true.

Hence\int\vec{B}.d\vec{l}=\mu_0Iis always true.

However if you expanded it to\int\vec{B}.d\vec{l}=B(2\pi r), you have assumed yourself that magnitude of magnetic field is constant as well as ‘along’ the circular path, which is a wrong assumption. Hence by using you cannot proceed further from\int\vec{B}.d\vec{l}=\mu_0 I, and you would have to use biot-savart’s law.

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