when a free rod of length L is made to traverse in xy with velocity v in a region containing uniform magnetic field in z direction, then according to the faraday's law emf = - B dA/dt here neither the area of the rod if changing with respect to time, nor the magnetic field is changin w.r.t to time, then how come an emf is genereated ??? i know the other concept in which the magnetic field exerts a force F on the electroins due to which there is an eletric field, but please explain using the above !!
when a free rod of length L is made to traverse in xy with velocity v in a region containing uniform magnetic field in z direction, then according to the faraday's law emf = - B dA/dt
here neither the area of the rod if changing with respect to time, nor the magnetic field is changin w.r.t to time, then how come an emf is genereated ???
i know the other concept in which the magnetic field exerts a force F on the electroins due to which there is an eletric field, but please explain using the above !!










