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Sir please help me with this question ,its answer is 0 ,please give me the exact reason For this

Sir please help me with this question ,its answer is 0 ,please give me the exact reason For this

Question Image
Grade:12

1 Answers

Vikas TU
14149 Points
2 years ago
Let x be the voltage at the upper junction and 0 at the lower and r be the resiatnce.
Hence applying KCL at junction.
(x + 10 – 10)/r + (x)/r + (x – 10 + 10)/r = 0
x/r + x/r + x/r = 0
3x/r = 0
x = 0 volt.
 
In whole circuit the net emf is 0 hence no current is flowing in the circuit and therefore, also there will be 0 magnetic foeld at point P.

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