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Please explain why the answer to the above question is zero.

Rishabh Sood , 8 Years ago
Grade 11
anser 1 Answers
aritra maity

Last Activity: 8 Years ago

 
As conductor is connected with the cell, the potential difference across two paths (two possible paths i.e. one upside and one downside path) is same.
V1 = V2
I1R1=I2R2
I1dl1=I2dl2 (as resistivity and area of cross section same )
 
Now, 
field, due to one path, is opposite due to another part. So magnetic field at the center is
\frac{\mu }{4\pi }i1dl1\sin \Theta - \frac{\mu }{4\pi }i2dl2\sin \Theta 
[sin 90 = 1 , i1dl1  = i2dl2]
= 0 (proved)
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