0

Guest

Courses New

Please explain why the answer to the above question is zero.

Please explain why the answer to the above question is zero.

Question Image
Grade:11

1 Answers

aritra maity
42 Points
6 years ago
 
As conductor is connected with the cell, the potential difference across two paths (two possible paths i.e. one upside and one downside path) is same.
V1 = V2
I1R1=I2R2
I1dl1=I2dl2 (as resistivity and area of cross section same )
 
Now, 
field, due to one path, is opposite due to another part. So magnetic field at the center is
\frac{\mu }{4\pi }i1dl1\sin \Theta - \frac{\mu }{4\pi }i2dl2\sin \Theta 
[sin 90 = 1 , i1dl1  = i2dl2]
= 0 (proved)

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?

Other Related Questions on Magnetism

View all Questions »

ASK QUESTION

Get your questions answered by the expert for free

Answer and earn gift vouchers

Win Gift vouchers upto Rs 500/-

View courses by askIITians

Design classes One-on-One in your own way with Top IITians/Medical Professionals

Click Here Know More

Complete Self Study Package designed by Industry Leading Experts

Click Here Know More

Live 1-1 coding classes to unleash the Creator in your Child

Click Here Know More

a Complete All-in-One Study package Fully Loaded inside a Tablet!

Click Here Know More