Thank you for registering.

One of our academic counsellors will contact you within 1 working day.

Please check your email for login details.
MY CART (5)

Use Coupon: CART20 and get 20% off on all online Study Material

ITEM
DETAILS
MRP
DISCOUNT
FINAL PRICE
Total Price: Rs.

There are no items in this cart.
Continue Shopping

THERE ARE TWO INFINITE LONG PARALLEL RODS .CURRENT I THROUGH 1ST ROD FLOWS FROM TOP TO BOTTOM AND SAME CURRENT I IN THE OTHER ROD FROM BOTTOM TO TOP.A POINT P LIES AT A DISTANCE r FROM SECOND ROD.IF THE SEPARATION BETWWEN THE RODS IS r metre,FIND MAGNETIC FIELD AT Q? Now i hav got the answer to the problem by subtracting the two magnetic fields due to rod 1 and 2.But still i m confused why did we take the minus sign ,i mean why do we need to subtract in this case and not simply add the two like we do if the pint would have been in betwwen the rods...Please try to explain me in little simpler language.


THERE ARE TWO INFINITE LONG PARALLEL RODS .CURRENT I THROUGH 1ST ROD FLOWS FROM TOP TO BOTTOM  AND SAME CURRENT I IN THE OTHER ROD FROM BOTTOM TO TOP.A POINT P LIES AT A DISTANCE r FROM SECOND ROD.IF THE SEPARATION BETWWEN THE RODS IS r metre,FIND MAGNETIC FIELD AT Q?


 


 


Now i hav got the answer to the problem by subtracting the two magnetic fields due to rod 1 and 2.But still i m confused why did we take the minus sign ,i mean why do we need to subtract in this case and not simply add the two like we do if the pint would have been in betwwen the rods...Please try to explain me in little simpler language.


Grade:12

1 Answers

Vijay Luxmi Askiitiansexpert
357 Points
11 years ago

Please post the query once.

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?

Provide a better Answer & Earn Cool Goodies See our forum point policy

ASK QUESTION

Get your questions answered by the expert for free