Guest

Let A=R-{2} and B=R-{1}, if f:A -->B is a mapping defined by f(x)= x-1/x-2, show that f is bijective.

Let A=R-{2} and B=R-{1}, if f:A -->B is a mapping defined by f(x)= x-1/x-2, show that f is bijective.
 

Grade:12

1 Answers

Deepak Kumar Shringi
askIITians Faculty 4407 Points
4 years ago
562-591_Capture.PNG

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?