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Let A=R-{2} and B=R-{1}, if f:A -->B is a mapping defined by f(x)= x-1/x-2, show that f is bijective.

Let A=R-{2} and B=R-{1}, if f:A -->B is a mapping defined by f(x)= x-1/x-2, show that f is bijective.
 

Grade:12

1 Answers

Deepak Kumar Shringi
askIITians Faculty 4405 Points
3 years ago
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