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i know the answer is 1but can anyone give me the proof for this. Best answer will be approved

1320_16302_toask.jpg


i know the answer is 1but can anyone give me the proof for this.


Best answer will be approved

Grade:12

2 Answers

ujwal reddy
32 Points
10 years ago

we already know that from principles of logaritm that logab=logb/loga

and logba=loga/logb

THEREFORE             logab X logba  =  1

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if you need the proof for logab=logb/loga

 

 let us consider logab =y            (some constant)

then according to the definition of logarithms b=ay

again taking log on both sides

logb=y loga             (acc. to principle logam=m X loga )

therefore y=logb/loga


Sudheesh Singanamalla
114 Points
10 years ago

thanks a lot :D

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