Prove that the value of n ∑ r=1 ( 0 1 ∫ f(r-1+x) dx) 0 n ∫ f(x) dx.

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Saurabh Koranglekar · Answer

Dear student To prove there must be lhs rhs Kindly check the question Regards

Vikas TU · Answer

Dear student Question is not clear Please attach an image, We will happy to help you Good Luck Cheers

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Prove that the value of n ∑ r=1 ( 0 1 ∫ f(r-1+x) dx) 0 n ∫ f(x) dx.

Prove that the value of ⁿ∑_r=1(₀¹∫ f(r-1+x) dx)
₀ⁿ∫ f(x) dx.

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Prove that the value of n ∑ r=1 ( 0 1 ∫ f(r-1+x) dx) 0 n ∫ f(x) dx.

Prove that the value of n∑r=1 (01∫ f(r-1+x) dx) 0n∫ f(x) dx.

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Prove that the value of ⁿ∑_r=1(₀¹∫ f(r-1+x) dx)
₀ⁿ∫ f(x) dx.