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Prove that the value of n ∑ r=1 ( 0 1 ∫ f(r-1+x) dx) 0 n ∫ f(x) dx.

 Prove that the  value of nr=1 (01∫ f(r-1+x) dx)
0n∫ f(x) dx.

Grade:11

2 Answers

Saurabh Koranglekar
askIITians Faculty 10336 Points
2 years ago
Dear student

To prove there must be lhs rhs

Kindly check the question

Regards
Vikas TU
14149 Points
2 years ago
Dear student 
Question is not clear 
Please attach an image, 
We will happy to  help you 
Good Luck
Cheers

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