Sher Mohammad
Last Activity: 11 Years ago

y1=cos(pi*x/2), y2=1-x^2 .
the area is integeral of (y2-y1 )dx between -1 and 1 , let represent integral by I
I(1-x^2-cos(pi*x/2))dx, between -1 and 1 on , calculating it comes out to be .060.
Thanks & Regards
sher mohammad,
askIITians Faculty
B.Tech.
IIT Delhi