Harish kumar
Last Activity: 14 Years ago
it' s answer is A i.e 0 becouse if we integrate xf(x) from 0 to 1 we get (X-1) which is given to be 2 hence x=3 and if integrate x^2f(x) from 0 to 1 we get 2x-2 which is given to 4 hence x=3 and putting the value of X=3 in second and third integrals.
int. of f(X) from 0 to 1=1 in first case
int. of f(X) from 0 to 1=2/3 in second case
int. of f(X) from 0 to 1=4/9 in third case
How can same function have different area from 0 to 1 . Therefore answers is 0