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The value of the integral from 0 to (pi/2) of [f(x)/f(x)+f((pi/2)-x)] is?
Dear s adhitya
Suppose I=(0 to π/2)∫f(x)dx/f(x) + f(π/2-x)
then I = (0 to π/2)∫f(π/2-x)dx/f(π/2-x) + f(x) (since (0 to a )∫f(x)=(0 to a) ∫ƒ(a-x))
Adding the two integrals
2I =(0 to π/2)∫f(x)dx/f(x) + f(π/2-x) + (0 to π/2)∫f(π/2-x)dx/f(π/2-x) + f(x)
2I=(0 to π/2)∫{f(x)+f(π/2-x)}dx/f(x) + f(π/2-x)
2I=(0 to π/2)∫dx
2I=π/2
I=π/4
ALL THE BEST
Abhinav Batra
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