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24
Pls answer this question
The answer is very complicated and I am not able to make it to the answer.

Shreyas Khandale , 5 Years ago
Grade
anser 1 Answers
Arun

Last Activity: 5 Years ago

Dear student
 
Use property
f(a + b – x) = f(x)
 
and then add
 
you get
 
2 I = integration feom 0 to pi/2 (1) dx
 
2 I = pi/2
 
hence I = pi/4
 
Hope it helps

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