shalabh singh
Last Activity: 12 Years ago
for a f(x) to be bijective, m should be equal to n. this is bcause if m>n, ther would be atlest one element in codomain which would have more than one preimage making the function manyone. If m<n, ther would be atleast one element in codomain which has no preimage making function into.
no. of choices for 1st element in domain to have an images= n
no. of choices for 2nd element to have image= n-1 and so on......
hence no. of bijections =n*(n-1)*(n-2)*.....*2*1 =n!.