Grade 12General Physics
There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help
There is a derivation given in my book which concludes to the fact that the range is same for two angles of projection, provided they are complementary. I fail to understand this fact. For example, what if we put the angle as 90 and 0 which are complimentary.practically how is the particle projected at zero degree have 0 range?isnt rolling a ball on a floor have a range?or maybe hitting the ball during billiards. Basically at zero degree I feel the motion would become rectilinear.whereas at 90 degree the range is zero as the object goes up and comes down. I have understood it mathematically by putting the angles in the range formula but not practically. Please help
