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Grade: 11
        
Q 27 of friction from HC Verma. Why do we take F-umg=0 as we know that the mass slides so it must have some acceleration.then why are we taking it as 0?shouldn’t it be F- umg=ma?
3 years ago

Answers : (1)

Vikas TU
11138 Points
							
It might be gievn the velocity as constant or the accleration would bezero.
Check the question again.
3 years ago
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