# Plzz....Solve this attached Question...................

Arun
25758 Points
3 years ago
dear student

As for limit x tends to 0, it will be (π/2 )^infinity

Hence it goes towards infinity. Hence limit doesn't exist.
Vikas TU
14149 Points
3 years ago
Dear student
This is indeterminant case , so you need to solve by applying Log on both sides.
log y = Lim (x-0)  1/x log (pie/2 – tan^-1 x )
On solving this and taking inverse , the limit would be 1.
Hope this helps
Good Luck