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Plzz....Solve this attached Question...................
dear student As for limit x tends to 0, it will be (π/2 )^infinity Hence it goes towards infinity. Hence limit doesn't exist.
Dear student This is indeterminant case , so you need to solve by applying Log on both sides.log y = Lim (x-0) 1/x log (pie/2 – tan^-1 x )On solving this and taking inverse , the limit would be 1. Hope this helps Good Luck
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