0

Guest

Courses New

Pls answer the question. . . . . . . .. . . . . . . . . . . . .

Pls answer the question. . . . . . 
.  ..  . . . . 
. .  . . . . . . 

Question Image
Grade:12

1 Answers

Aditya Gupta
2081 Points
3 years ago
given f(x) + xf(–x)= x+1.......(1)
since it satisfies this for all x, replace x by – x, we get
f(–x) – xf(x)= – x+1.......(2)
eliminate f(–x) from (1) and (2) to get
(1+x^2)*f(x)= 1+x^2
or f(x)= 1
since codomain of f is R, but range only 1, hence f is into.
it is also many to one since f(3)= f(4).
so option B is correct.
KINDLY APPROVE :))

Think You Can Provide A Better Answer ?

Other Related Questions on Differential Calculus

View all Questions »

ASK QUESTION

Get your questions answered by the expert for free

Answer and earn gift vouchers

Win Gift vouchers upto Rs 500/-

View courses by askIITians

Design classes One-on-One in your own way with Top IITians/Medical Professionals

Click Here Know More

Complete Self Study Package designed by Industry Leading Experts

Click Here Know More

Live 1-1 coding classes to unleash the Creator in your Child

Click Here Know More

a Complete All-in-One Study package Fully Loaded inside a Tablet!

Click Here Know More