Aditya Gupta
Last Activity: 5 Years ago
both statements are true. but statement 2 is not the correct explanation for statement 1.
we see that f(1)=f(3), and that it is differentiable, so obviously rolle theorem is applicable to f(x) in the interval [1,3].
MVT is applicable in any interval [a,b], as long as the function is differentiable in that interval. since f(x) given above is differentiable in R, so statement 2 is true as well.
obviously though it does not explain st1 in any way