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Differentiability questions. Please solve . answer is 2 but left hand limit does not exist. How is it possible ?? (Question in attachment)
the domain of the given function is [0, infinity).so, by definition, it is said to be differentiable at each point in its domain if it is derivable everywhere in in (0, infinity) and the right hand derivative at 0 exists.as you can see, the right hand derivative at zero exists and is equal to – 1.so, it is said to be differentiable at 0 just because of the definition of derivability at the end points of an interval.
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