jitender lakhanpal
Last Activity: 11 Years ago
hi ravi
the answer is 1 given below is explanation
the function is of form a / b you can write it as limit (x-->0) (1+tanx)^cosecx / (1+sinx)^1/sinx
now in denominator x tends to 0 so sinx will also tend to 0
so it will be in form lim x tend to 0 (1+x)^(1/x) and is equal to e
similarly in numerator (1+ sinx/cosx)^cosx/sinx *cosx is also of above form so e
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jitender
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