let g(x)be the inverse of the function f(x)and f''(x)= 1/1+x3. then g''(x)is equal to
Tonmoy Chetia , 11 Years ago
Grade 12
1 Answers
Nirmal Singh.
Last Activity: 10 Years ago
F”(x) = 1/1+x^3 So integrating we get f’(x) = 1/6 log (x^2-x+1) +1/3 log (x+1) +1/ root 3 tan inverse of{ (2x-1)/root 3} Similarly we integrate this and find f(x) Then find inverse of f(x) as g(x) Then differentiate g(x) two times to get g”(x) Regards, Nirmal Singh Askiitians Faculty
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