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If X and Y are two non-empty sets where f:X-> Y is function defined such that f(c)={f(x):xεC} for C SUBSET OF X

and f-1(D)={x: f(x)εD} for D SUBSET OF Y, for any A subset of Y and B subset of Y, then

(a) f-1{f(A)}=A

(b) f-1{f(A)}=A only if f(X)= Y

(c) f{f-1(B)}=B only if B is subset of f(x)

(d) f{f-1(B)}=B

Explain pls.

Aditi Bhatnagar , 14 Years ago
Grade 12th Pass
anser 1 Answers
santhanagopalan raghavan

since the function is invertible(one to one and onto) only in D. The answer is (c)

Last Activity: 14 Years ago
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