Askiitian.Expert Rajat
Last Activity: 15 Years ago
Hi,
Since the two functions cut orthogonally,
=>
f'(x1).g'(x1) = -1
Now since
|f ' (x1)| = | g ' (x1)|
Therefore :
f ' (x1)= - g'(x1)
Hence
Either f'(x1) = 1 and g'(x1) = -1
or
f'(x1) = -1 and g'(x1) = 1
Now, What does this statement mean?
"both f(x) and g(x) have ?????? equal to n, where n belongs to N, and n ≠ 1"
Shoould there be something in place of ??????
Waiting for your reply.
Rajat
Askiitian Expert