if F(x)= integral -1 to x mod(t) dt. then can we say that F'(x)= mod(x) if yes then F(x) must be continous because F'(x) i.e. mod(x) is continous. but this is not so as on expanding the expression of F(x) we see that it is discontinous.. plz solve my problem because in the solution of this question it was written that F(x) is continous as its derivative is continous i.e mod(x)..

Himanshu Karan , 15 Years ago

Grade 12